全国小学生英语竞赛(NECPS)四年级组初赛赛题

（时间：60分钟  总分：100分）

听力部分（共四大题，计40分）

I. 听辨单词 (Words) （共10小题，计10分）

    A）听音，选出你所听到的单词。每个单词只读一遍。（答案涂在答题纸上）

1. A. sit         B. say        C. hit          D. way

2. A. boy         B. toy        C. joy          D. oil

3. A. cow         B. now        C. how          D. low

4. A. foot        B. cook       C. good         D. wood

5. A. name        B. late       C. cake         D. make

    B) 听音，选出你听到的单词所代表的图片。每个单词读两遍。（答案涂在答题纸上）

6. 

7. 

8. 

9. 

10.   

II. 句子理解 (Sentences)　（共10小题，计10分）

    A) 听音，选出你所听到句子中涉及到的单词。每个句子读两遍。（答案涂在答题纸上）

11. A. home      B. school       C. skate     D. cool

12. A. new       B. know         C. no        D. you

13. A. tree      B. meet         C. three     D. sheep

14. A. team      B. mother       C. doctor    D. teacher

15. A. five      B. fine         C. nice      D. nine

    B) 听音，判断所给图片与所听句子是（Y）否（N）相符。每个句子读两遍。（答案涂在答题纸上）

III. 对话理解 (Dialogues) （共10小题，计10分）

    A) 听音，看图，选择与所听内容相符的图片。每组对话读两遍。（答案涂在答题纸上）

    B) 听音，根据你所听到的内容为相关的图片按英文字母(A, B, C, D, E)的顺序标号。每组对话读两遍。（答案写在答题纸上）

IV. 短文理解 (Passages) （共10小题，计10分）

    A) 听音，填单词，补全短文（每空只填一词）。短文读两遍。(答案写在答题纸上)

Hi, boys and girls. Do you know who I am? Maybe you don't know. My classmates call     31    Naughty Monkey. My real     32    is Peter. I am very naughty, but I'm the     33    of  my  parents'    34    . I  like  eating  vegetables  and  fruit.  I'm     35    and  thin. 

    B）听音，根据所听短文内容判断下列句子正（T）误（F）。短文读两遍。(答案涂在答题纸上)

36. Ted is nine years old.

37. Ted's father is a policeman.

38. Ted's mother doesn't like cooking.

39. Ted's sister is Mary.

40. There are four people in Ted's family.

笔试部分（共六大题，计60分）

I.  单词 (Words) (共10 小题，计10分)

    A) 按要求完成下列各题。(答案写在答题纸上)

1. high ________(同音词)       2. boat________(改一个字母变成动物名词)

3. man ________(对应词)        4. black ________(反义词)

5. fly a ________ (放风筝)

    B) 根据所给句子及首字母提示补全下列单词。(答案写在答题纸上)

6. It's very n______ of you.     

7. 2006 is the Year of D______.

8. He always goes out for a w______ in the evening.

9. Look!The cat is sitting under the tall t______.

10. S______ is the first day of the week in America.

II. 句子 (Sentences) (共10 小题，计10分)

    A）从A，B，C，D四个选项中选择最佳的一项完成下列句子。(答案涂在答题纸上)

11. Animals are our ________ friends.

    A. good      B. very            C. well        D. ill

12. It's time ________  go to school.

    A. in        B. for             C. to          D. on

13. The pencil is ________.

    A. of Jim    B. of Jim's        C. Jim         D. Jim's

14. Listen!Lucy is ________ in the classroom.

    A. sing      B. singing         C. sings       D. song

15. ________ clever you are!

    A. How       B. What            C. It's        D. Its

B) 按要求完成下列各题。(答案写在答题纸上)

16. It's Monday today. (就划线部分提问)

17. I get up at 6:30 every morning. (用第三人称he改写句子)

18. Do you like swimming? (作肯定回答)

19. girl, beautiful, a, sister, his, is (.) (连词成句，注意首字母大写)

20. Kate watches TV every day. (变成一般疑问句，注意首字母大写）

III. 情景会话 (Dialogues)  (共10 小题，计10分)

??? A) 根据所给的情景，选择合适的句子完成下列各题。(答案涂在答题纸上)

B) 根据所给的情景选择合适的一项完成对话(其中有两个多余选项)。(答案写在答题纸上)

  A. Let's go together.         B. What class are you in?

  C. Hello!                     D. Here you are.

  E. Thank you.                 F. Sure. I'm Li Ping. What about you?

  G. Nice to meet you, too.

IV. 阅读理解 (Reading Comprehension) （共10 小题，计10分）

    A) 阅读短文，根据短文内容填写单词，完成文后句子。(答案写在答题纸上)

On weekdays, I go to school by bike. I get to school at about 7:30 every day. I don't like to be late. We begin our classes at 8:00. We have lunch in the middle of the day. In the afternoon, classes are over at 3:30, and I get home at 5:00. We have supper at about 6:00. In the evening I do my homework. After that I often watch TV, but sometimes I read books. I go to bed at 9:00.

31. I go to school by              .

32. We have               in the middle of the day.

33. I get home at               in the afternoon.

34. In the evening I do my              .

35. I like watching               very much.

    B) 阅读短文, 完成文后问题。(答案写在答题纸上)

Jack and Simon are Chinese boys. They live in England. They are brothers. They look the same. Jack is eleven, Simon is eleven, too. They are in Class Two, Grade Four. Jack studies harder than Simon. Today is their birthday. There is a big cake on the table. Their parents sit between them. There are two nice gifts for them. The basketball is for Simon, and the new book is for Jack. They like the gifts very much.

36. Are Jack and Simon twins?       37. Where do they live?

38. What class are they in?         39. Is there a cake on the table?

40. Which gift is for Simon?

V. 智力测试 (IQ Test) （共5 小题，计5分）(答案涂或写在答题纸上)

41. Today is a red letter day. Everyone is happy. “a red letter day”的汉语意思是：             

    A. 喜庆的日子  B. 红色的一天  C. 来信的日子

42. Two little brothers live near each other. One lives on one side, the other on the other side. They hear what you say, but they can't see each other. What are they?  They are             .

43. At the zoo there are some ostriches(鸵鸟) and 8 zebras(斑马) in the same enclosure(围栏). I count all the legs and find there are 38 altogether. How many ostriches are there?

44. Mr Brown has two eyes. Some people(有人) say he has four eyes. Do you know the reason  (原因)?

A. People can't count correctly.

B. He really has four eyes.

C. He wears a pair of glasses.

45. Hello, little friends! Please think over the following question. Move a match and get the right answer. (小朋友们, 大家好，请仔细思考下面的题，移动一根火柴，使下面的算式成立。)

VI. 小作文 (Composition) （计15分）

    提示：假设Linda是你的好朋友，请以“My Friend”为题写一篇小作文。

          名字：Linda       年龄：12      爱好：reading, playing football

          相貌特征：tall, thin, long hair, big eyes, a small mouth

    要求：1. 条理清楚，意思连贯，语句通顺，用词得当，语法正确，书写清晰、规范；

          2. 可根据所给的资料作适当地发挥；

          3. 不得少于45个单词；

          4. 将作文写在答题纸上。

全国小学生英语竞赛(NECPS)四年级组初赛赛题参考答案及评分标准

听力部分(共四大题，计4０分)

I. 听辨单词（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
    A) 1-5 DBACC     B) 6-10 CBADA

II. 句子理解（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
    A) 11-15 BACDB  B) 16-20 YYNYY

III. 对话理解（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
    A) 21-25 BCBDB  B) 26-30 DBACE

IV. 短文理解（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
    A) 31. me  32. name  33. apple  34. eye  35. tall
    B) 36-40 TFFTT

笔试部分（共六大题，计60分）

I. 单词（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
    A） 1. hi     2. goat     3. woman  4. white   5. kite
    B） 6. nice   7. Dog      8. walk   9. tree    10. Sunday

II. 句子（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
    A) 11-15 ACDBA
    B) 16. What day is it today?
       17. He gets up at 6:30 every morning.
       18. Yes, I do.
       19. His sister is a beautiful girl.
       20. Does Kate watch TV every day?

III. 情景会话（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
    A) 21-25 ADBDC    B) 26-30 CGFBA

IV. 阅读理解（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
    A) 31. bike  32. lunch  33. 5:00 / five   34. homework  35. TV
    B) 36. Yes, they are.
       37. They live in England.
       38. They are in Class Two, Grade Four.
       39. Yes, there is.
       40. The basketball.

V. 智力测试 （共5小题, 每小题1分, 计5分）
    41. A  42. ears  43. 3 / Three.  44. C  45.

VI. 小作文（计15分）

My  Friend

Hello, everyone!I have a good friend. Her name is Linda. She is 12 years old. She is very tall and thin. She has big eyes, a small mouth and long hair. She is very cute. She likes reading and playing football very much. We often study and play after school together. I like her very much.

(57 words)

一、评分原则：

    1．本题总分为15分，按四个档次给分。

    2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言水平初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整本档次，最后给分。

    3．文章少于规定词数，从总分中减去1分。

    4．如书写较差，以至影响阅卷，将分数降低一个档次。

二、各档次的给分范围和要求：

    第四档(很好)：(12—15分)

    完全完成了试题规定的任务，覆盖所有内容要点，应用了较多的语法结构和词汇，没有语法和词汇错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，完全达到了预期的写作目的。

    第三档(好)：(8—11分)

    完成了试题规定的任务，应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，基本没有语法和词汇错误，达到了预期的写作目的。

    第二档(一般)：(4—7分)

    未恰当完成试题规定的任务，漏掉内容要点，未描述清楚主要内容，写了一些无关内容，有语法和词汇错误，影响了对写作内容的理解，未能清楚地传达信息。

    第一档(差)：(1—3分)

    未完成试题规定的任务，明显遗漏了主要内容，写了一些无关内容，语法结构单调，词汇数量有限，有较多语法和词汇错误，影响对写作内容的理解，未能传达信息。

    0分：

    未能传达给读者任何信息，内容太少，无法评判，写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。

三、说明：

    1．内容要点可用不同方式表达。

    2．对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。

    3．漏掉每个要点扣1—2分。

附：听力部分录音原文

I. 听辨单词

    A) 听音，选出你所听到的单词。每个单词只读一遍。

    1. way  2. toy  3. cow  4. good  5. cake

    B) 听音，选出你听到的单词所代表的图片。每个单词读两遍。

    6. bird  7. bed  8. tomato 9. jump  10. tea

II. 句子理解

    A) 听音，选出你所听到句子中涉及到的单词。每个句子读两遍。

       11. Welcome back to school. 

       12. I have a new friend.

       13. One and two is three.

       14. Who is your English teacher?

       15. It's a fine day today.

    B) 听音，判断所给图片与所听句子是（Y）否（N）相符。每个句子读两遍。

       16. It's late. Get up, Tom. 

       17. Open the door, please.

       18. Andy likes reading English very much.

       19. Look!Tim is helping the granny with her bag.

       20. There are two bikes under the tree.

III. 对话理解

    A) 听音，看图，选择与所听内容相符的图片。每组对话读两遍。

21. M: What colour is the hat?
    W: It's blue.

22. M: What time is it?
    W: It's seven o'clock.

23. M: How much is the schoolbag?
    W: It's four dollars.

24. M: Where is the post office?
    W: It's over there.

25. M: It's cold. You'd better put on your coat, please.
    W: Yes, I will.

    B) 听音，根据你所听到的内容为相关的图片按英文字母(A, B, C, D, E)的顺序标号。每组对话读两遍。

26. W: How do you usually go home?
    M: I usually go home by bus.

27. W: Where is he from?
    M: He's from China.

28. W: What's on the desk?
    M: A pencil-box.

29. W: How many ducks can you see?
    M: Six.

30. W: Can you play football?
    M: Yes, I can.

IV. 短文理解

    A) 听音，填单词，补全短文（每空只填一词）。短文读两遍。

Hi, boys and girls. Do you know who I am? Maybe you don't know. My classmates call me Naughty Monkey. My real name is Peter. I am very naughty, but I'm the apple of my parents' eye. I like eating vegetables and fruit. I'm tall and thin.

    B) 听音，根据所听短文内容判断下列句子正（T）误（F）。短文读两遍。

I'm Ted. I'm nine years old. I have a happy family. My father is 36 years old. He's a singer. He likes to play computer games. My mother is 33 years old. She likes to cook for us. I have a sister. Her name is Mary. She's pretty and clever. I love them and they love me, too.