SPECIFICATION FOR THE TEST

Test Purpose

The test is a proficient test designed to measure how much the students have learnt with referent to English course before attending college.

 

Test Domain

Theoretical Construct:

Students’ ability to process integrated skills in the teaching syllabus within limited time.

 

Operations:

Listening:

1) be able to catch the main idea of the dialogue or text.

         2) be able to get details of a relevant specified need.

         3) be able to write down the needed information.

Grammar and Vocabulary:

1) be able to use right grammar rules as required in the teaching syllabus.

         2) be able to deduce the meaning of an unknown word from context.

         3) be able to distinguish synonyms, antonyms, etc.

Reading:

1)      be able to scan text to locate specific information.

2)      be able to search through text to decide on the overall idea.

3)      be able to get detailed information of the text.

4)      be able to recognize certain words and translate sentences accurately.

Writing;

1)      be able use organizational and logical skills to answer questions with own words.

2)      be able to address the writing task effectively.

3)      be able to write correct and appropriate sentences.

4)      be able to demonstrate an adequately developed structure with clearly stated main ideas and sufficient supporting details.

5)      be able to make no mistakes of vocabulary, spelling or syntax, and display an adequate ability to use the language with appropriacy.

Spoken English Test:

1)      be able to read certain passages with good pronunciation and proper tone.

2)      be able to talk with others accurately and fluently with no grammar mistakes.

 

Test Takers

Freshmen from Department of Chinese Language and Literature. They are native speaker of Chinese, both male and female.

 

Test Content

Test Types:

dialogue and passages (Listening), multiple-choices and description (Grammar and Vocabulary), narration (Reading), argument(Writing), exposition and dialogue (Spoken English Test)

 

Test Length

Listening: there will be one dialogue with 150 words and one passage with 250 words.

Grammar and Vocabulary: there will be 20 multiple-choices and one cloze with 200 words around.

Reading: there will be one text of about 200 words.

Spoken English Test: there will be one passage of about 150 words.

 

Test Method

Discrete-point test and integrative test are used in combination with emphasis on the latter. Both direct and indirect test methods will be used to assess students’ writing.

 

Test Tasks and Item Types

 

Type	Expected Response	Mode
Multiple-choice questions	selected	written
Multiple-choice questions Cloze	selected selected	written written
Multiple-choice questions Translation	selected constructed	written written
Answer questions Essay writing	constructed constructed	written written
Reading and dialogue	manipulated	verbal

 

Test Organization and Weighing

 

component	Number of test Tasks or Items	Weighting（100）
Multiple-choice questions	20	20
Multiple-choice questions Cloze	20 1 passage(with 15 blanks)	20 15
Multiple-choice questions Translation	4 2	8 6
Answer questions Essay writing	3 questions 1	6 10
Reading dialogue	1 1	5 10

 

Time Duration

The test should be completed within 90 minutes.

 

Scoring Criteria

For the selected-response type or items, a standard key is provided. (omitted)

For the constructed-response type tasks or items, scoring criteria are provided as follows:

Essay writing:

 

Scales	Aspects
	content	structure	language	type
10-9	State ideas clearly and effectively; have sufficient supporting details	Extraordinary logical structure and coherent information	Almost no errors of vocabulary, grammar		Very appropriate
8-7	Have ideas and demonstration; Relevant to the topics	Logical structure and coherent information	Grammar mistakes are few and not serious		Suitable
6-4	Basically related to the topics, or lack of demonstrations	Structure is right but some make no sense	Many grammar mistakes and in a certain extent influent the expression		Mostly are suitable
1-3	Rambling and no general ideas	Disorder and incoherent	Nearly all are wrong		No suitable style

Spoken English Test:

 

Scales	Aspects
	pronunciation	tone	attitude	accuracy
6-5	Very well	Appropriate	Relaxed	Use appropriate words and right grammar rules
4-3	Good	proper	A little nervous	Use right words but there are few grammar mistakes
1-2	Just right	unsuitable	Too nervous to speak fluently	inaccuracy

 

Spoken English Test Administration

It is advised that students be informed of the procedures of test administration beforehand.

1)      Supervisors should inform students of the procedure of test administration.

2)      At the end of 15 minutes, supervisors collect answer sheets within 5 minutes, and then the speaking test begins.

3)      Try to direct students into their topics if they made few mistakes but not allowed to help students in reading.

4)      The test should be accomplished within 10 minutes.

 

Test Development Chart

 

aspect part	Testing type	Skill	Number	Score
I	Listening comprehension	catch the main idea get details write down the needed information	5   5	5   5
II	Grammar Vocabulary Cloze	use right grammar rules deduce the meaning distinguish	20 15	20 15
III	Reading comprehension	locate information search information recognize certain words translate sentences	4     2	8     6
IV	Writing	organizational and logical skills write correct and appropriate sentences demonstrate adequately developed structures	1   1	6   10
V	Spoken testing	good pronunciation and proper tone talk accurately and fluently	1 1	5 10

 

 

 

 

English Test

The test has five parts, 5 pages.     Time length: 90 minutes.      Total points: 100

Part I   Listening Comprehension (10 marks)

 

Section A (5*1’)

Directions: In this section, you will hear one conversation between two speakers, and there are several questions and each question is followed by three choices marked A, B and C. Listen carefully and then choose the best answer for each question.

Conversation 1

1. What is the relationship between the two speakers?

A. tour friends                          B. customer and receptionist   

C. traveler and airport clerk               D. professor and student

2. Why the man is interested in hiking trip to the mountains?

A. Because it is very cheap.               B. He does not mention it.

C. Because he is partial to the nature.       D. The woman recommends the nature landscape.

3. What is the probably price of the over-night trips?

A. 9 Yuan       B. 8 dollars       C. They do not talk about price      D. 15 dollars

4. Does the man need to book the trip in advance?

A. No           B. Yes           C. Not mention it.                 D. It depends

5. What’s the main topic of the conversation?

A. How to hike?                        B. Which tour is more interesting?

C. Which tour is expensive?              D. How to book the right trip?

 

Section B (5*1’)

Directions: In this section, you will hear a passage three times. When the passage is read for the first time, you should listen carefully for its general idea. When the passage is read for the second time, you are required to fill in the blanks numbered from 6 to 8 with the exact words you have just heard. For blanks numbered from 9 to 10 you are required to fill in the missing information. For these blanks, you can either use the exact words you have just heard or write down the main points in your own words. Finally, when the passage is read for the third time, you should check what you have written.

      Every four years, Americans elect a president．Any American citizen over 40 years old who was born in the US can be president．There are many political parties in the United States, but, two political parties are much stronger than the others．For over a hundred years, the man elected as president has always been either a Democrat or a(an)___(6)______．During the election year there are a lot of local elections, called primary elections, held in many of the fifty states．In the primary election, usually held in the winter and spring, candidates run against members of their own parties．In this way they try to get support of party members around the country．During the summer, both parties have _____(7)_______where the party members make the final choice for the party’s presidential candidate．Each party chooses a person to run for president and a person to run for vice president．The two candidates work as a team．They will win or lose the election together．Once the final candidates are chosen, they __(8)_____ around the country, trying to win votes．The national election is held in November．The candidate _______________(9)_______________in the following January．The election process is long and costly．Millions of dollars are spent．__________(10)______________ for presidency for many years．Nearly all of these people fail to win.

Part II Grammar and Vocabulary (35 marks)

 

Section A (20*1’)

Directions: Beneath each of the following sentences there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one answer that best completes the sentence.

11. With a great weight _______ off her mind, she passed all the tests successfully.            

A. taking            B. taken          C. take          D. to be taken 

12.  You’d better give the task to ______you think can finish it ahead of time.                

 A. whoever           B. whomever      C. anyone      D. no matter who

13. When I came in, I saw him ______ in a chair deep in thought.  

A. sat              B. seated              C. seating        D. being seated 

14. He hesitated for a moment before kicking the ball, otherwise he ____a goal.      

A. had scored         B. scored          C. would score        D. would have scored         

15. One _____morning, the boy was found ____in the corner of the street.            

A. freezing; freezing       B. freezing; frozen       C. frozen; frozen      D. frozen; freezing

16. Good heavens! Here you are! We ______anxious about you, and we ____ you back throughout the night.  

A. are; expect        B. were; had expected     C. have been; were expecting      D. are; were expecting

17. If only he _____quietly as the doctor instructed, he would not suffer so much now.

A. lies             B. lay                C. had lain                D. should lie

18. ---– Do you know the girl in red?

-----She seems to ______ me last month’s party. But I’m not sure. 

A. introduce to          B. be introducing to       C. be introduced to       D. have been introduced to

19. I have never heard such a more _____ story, which really _____ me.  

A. interested; excites     B. interesting; excites      C. interesting; is excited     D. interested; is exciting 

20. Galileo collected the facts _____ proved the earth and all the other planets move around the sun.　　

A. that            B. which             C. 不填            D. A and B　　

21. I went on _____though I had already got wet in the rain.

A. run             B. ran              C. to run              D. running 

22.   – I enjoyed playing football very much last term. 

---________. 

A. So do I             B. So did I              C. So I did           D. I did so

23.   _________otherwise directed by a doctor, this medicine should be taken three times a day. 

A. If               B. Whether              C. Unless             D. Although  

24.   _______at the door before entering, please. 

A. Knocked              B. To knock           C. Knocking          D. Knock 

25.   The men will have to wait all day_____ the doctor works faster. 

A. if               B. unless               C. whether             D. that

26. The sun was shining brightly, ______ everything there _____ more beautiful. 

A. making; look          B. to make; looked      C. and made; looking      D. and making; be looked 

27.   Visitors ______ not to touch the exhibits.

A. will request        B. are requested            C. are requesting      D. request   

28.  ---Let’s see if the baseball game has started yet.

--- Started? It must be clear who _____by now.

A. is winning           B. wins                 C. has won           D. would win 

29.  ---John, come on!  

---Wait a moment, mum. I _______.   

A. get just dressing             B. got just a dressed    C. am just getting dressed      D. have just dressed

30. ---Has your father finished his essay yet?  

--- I don’t know; he ______  it this morning.   

A. wrote             B. has written                C. had written           D. was writing 

 

Section B (15*1’)

Directions: For each blank in the following passage there are four words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Fill in each blank with the word or phrase that best fits the context.

Three soldiers were on their way home from the war. They arrived at a small village, they were very tired and (31), but they had no food or money. The only thing they did have was a cooking pot(锅).

The soldiers built a small cooking fire, (32) their pot on it, and poured in some water. When a few villagers asked what they were doing, one of the soldiers answered that he was making stone soup. A few more villagers walking by stopped to (33) what was going on when they heard about it.

“Any soup needs salt and pepper,” the first soldier said, (34) some children ran to fetch salt and pepper. “Stones can be used to prepare good soup, but tomatoes would (35) it so much better,” the second soldier added. One woman said“, Why, I think I have a tomato or two! ”She ran to get the tomatoes.

“Some cabbage would be a proper choice for a good stone soup!” said the third soldier. Another woman said, “I think I can probably find some cabbage,” and (36) she ran.

“If only we had a bit of beef and some potatoes, this soup would be fit for a rich man's (37).”The villagers thought it over, then ran to fetch what they had in their homes. A rich man's soup and all from a few stones! It seemed like (38)!

The soldiers said“, If only we had a little milk, this soup would be fit for a king! ”And so other villagers (39) to get some milk.

“The soup is ready,” said the cooks, “and all will (40) it, but first we need to set the tables.” Some of the villagers said, “Such a great soup would be better (41) some bread and cakes,” so they brought the (42) two things and the meal was (43) by all. Never had there been such a (44) meal. Never had the villagers had such delicious soup, and all made from stones! They ate and drank and danced well into the night.

In the morning, the villagers gathered to say goodbye. “Many thanks to you,” they said, “for we shall (45) go hungry now that we have learned how to make soup from stones.”

31. A. hungry         B. bored         C. sleepy         D. sick

32. A. drew           B. threw         C .left             D. placed

33. A. see             B. tell           C. imagine        D. notice

34. A. but             B. so            C. or                D. while

35. A. cook           B. do            C. invent           D. make

36. A. about          B. in            C. off                D. out

37. A. health         B. money       C. dream          D. table

38. A. art             B. magic        C. interest           D. supper

39. A. tried           B. returned       C. managed       D. came

40. A. want          B. buy            C. use               D. taste

41. A. over          B. besides        C. with              D. like

42. A. first           B. last            C. other             D. only

43. A. enjoyed      B. given           C. needed          D. brought

44. A. cheap        B. proper         C. special            D. public

45. A. later          B. ever           C. sometimes        D. never

 

Part III  Reading Comprehension (14 marks)

Directions: Read the following passage. The passage is followed by four questions. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the information given in the passage. And then translate two certain sentences into Chinese.

George Andrews went to England in 1962. It was the first time that he had been abroad. Initially he was very restless. He spent a little time in London then traveled from town to town, staying just a few days in each.

Eventually, in June that year, he settled in Liverpool. Throughout the three years that he spent there he lived in a small room in a terraced house in Toxtheth. Every morning he would stroll into the centre of the city and make drawings of people in the streets or down at the docks. At lunch time he would go to a pub and have a sandwich, as well as several pints of beer. He would then stagger home and spend the rest of the afternoon sleeping. It was in the evening that he painted the pictures for which he is now famous. In the early hours, around one or two o’clock, he would go to a nearby drinking club, where he would pick up a woman and take her back to his room.

Andrew finally lost interest in painting Liverpool scenes. He set off on a world tour, visiting Europe, India, China and Australia, before returning home to Canada.

 

Section A  (4x2’)

46. What is the best title for the passage?

A. George Andrews’s Life in England              B. George Andrews’s trip to England

C. George Andrews’s hobby ----painting            D. George Andrews -----a famous painter

47. What dose George Andrews usually do in a day time?

A. strolling-staying in pub-drawing-sleeping at home-painting

B. drawing-staying in pub-sleeping at home-strolling-painting

C. strolling-drawing-staying in pub-sleeping at home-painting

D. sleeping at home-strolling drawing-staying in pub- painting

48. In the sixth line, the word “stagger” refers to ______?

A. to run or walk fast, taking short quick steps

B. to walk somewhere in a slow relaxed way

C. to walk with weak unsteadily steps, as if you are about to fall

D. to move or go somewhere by putting one foot of the other on the ground

49. When dose George Andrews leave England?

A. In 1962     B. In 1963    C. In 1965       D. Not mention it

 

Section B  (2x3’)

50. It was in the evening that he painted the pictures for which he is now famous.

51. He set off on a world tour, visiting Europe, India, China and Australia, before returning home to Canada.

 

Part IV  Writing  (16 marks)

 

Section A (3*2’)

Directions: Read the following passage; answer the questions according to the information given in the passage.

Secret Santas

      On Christmas morning, Linda wakes up, and tries to imagine the wide-eyed surprise of children in another household as they unwrap the presents she carefully chose for them. Linda has never met the children, but that’s all part of the joy of giving as secret Santas, she says.

      "It's an amazing feeling to buy gifts on an anonymous (匿名的) basis," says Linda. "It brings a whole new meaning to the holidays."

      Linda and Tony are an American couple living in Toronto, Canada, and Linda did charitable work as a member of the American Women's Club of Toront o. As the name suggests, members are U.S. citizens living in Toronto, who join together for fellowship and community service.

      To find her "adopted" family, Linda goes to the local schools and requests a wish list for a family that's struggling to survive. Last year she helped a single mother with three children. The mother works as a cleaning lady in a nursing home.

      "The list is always heartbreaking. They have an opportunity to ask for anything and do just the opposite, asking for basic clothes or simple toys," she says. "We always buy the kids a new winter coat, hats, and gloves." She also buys gifts for the parents.

       Last year Linda asked the mother for a second wish list--one that didn't include the basics. "Every child should have a Christmas that sticks with them for a lifetime." She purchased iPods for the two older children and a video game system for the youngest. "I have learned a very valuable lesson in all of this," says Linda. "Pay attention to what's going on in your own backyard--no matter where you live."

      The joy of giving as secret Santas is much sweeter when the gift is anonymous.

52. What reaction does Linda imagine the children will have?    (No more than 5 words)

__________________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)

53. Why did Linda join the American Women’s Club of Toronto?  (No more than 10 words)

__________________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)

54. Why did Linda ask for a second wish list?                 (No more than 15 words)

___________________________________________________________________________(2 marks)

 

Section B (10 marks)

Directions: For this part, you are allowed 30 minutes to write a short essay on the topic of Should Children Be Taken Care of at Home? You should write at least 120 words following the outline given below:

Should Children Be Taken Care of at Home?

1. Some people think children should be taken care of at home by their parents;

2. Others argue that it would be good for them if they were sent to the kindergarten;

3. What’s your opinion?

 

Part V Spoken English Test (15 marks)

Directions: In Section A, you need to read a passage of about 150 words; In Section B, there are four topics for you to choose and then make a dialogue with your partner. You have 10 minutes in this part in all.

 

Section A (1*5’)

In recent years, to get a certificate has become a new craze among college students. Just randomly, ask a student on campus what he or she is busy doing, quite possibly, you may get the answer that he or she is preparing for a certificate of some kind.
    Why does this craze appear? There are two mainly reasons behind this phenomenon. First, it is the employments pressure that forces college students to get more certificates. With the admission expansion of colleges, a large more graduates have to face the fierce competition in the job markets. How can one make himself more competitive, more certificates at hands maybe. Second, the diplomas and certificates are still important standard by which many employers measure a person’s ability in order to increase qualification for a job, the students compel themselves to run from one exam to another

 

Section B (1*10’)

Topic 1: My favorite food

Topic 2: My hobby

Topic 3: An unforgettable Experience

Topic 4: How to protect our environment?

 

Test paper

Department_______   Grade_______          Class_______      

Name_______        Number_______         Score_______     

 

Part I   Listening Comprehension (10 marks)

Section A (5*1’)

1	2	3	4	5

 

Section B (5*1')

6._____________

7._____________

8._____________

9.____________________________________________

10.___________________________________________

 

Part II Grammar and Vocabulary (35 marks)

 

11	12	13	14	15		16	17	18		19		20
21	22	23	24	25		26	27	28	29		30
31	32	33	34	35	36		37	38	39		40
41	42	43	44	45

 

Part III  Reading Comprehension (14 marks)

Section A  (4x2’)

 

46	47	48	49

 

 

Section B  (2x3’)

50_______________________________________________________________

51________________________________________________________________

 

Part IV  Writing  (16 marks)

Section A (3*2’)

52.______________________________________________________________

53.______________________________________________________________

54._______________________________________________________________

Section B (1*10’)

Should Children Be Taken Care of at Home?

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