Term Paper for An Introduction to English Language Testing

 

SPECIFICATIONS FOR THE TEST

Test purpose:

The is a proficiency test designed to assess the ability of students who is going to be members of college. Through the test, the teachers will get a further understanding of the students, thus they will make their teaching schemes more scientific and efficient.

Test Domain:

Listening : a) be able to distinguish phonemes

         b) be able to listen for specific details

         c) be able to understand grammatical notions

         d) be able to listen for the general message

         e) be able to make inferences and educations from given information

Grammar & vocabulary: a) be able to recognize and distinguish words

                    b) be able to use words in a sentence correctly

                    c) be able to master English grammar

Cloze: a) be able to get the main idea

      b) be able to recognize and distinguish word

      c) be able to make sentences correctly

      d) be able to make inferences from given information

Reading: a) be able to scan text to locate specific information

        b) be able to search through text to decide on the overall idea

c) be able to search through text evaluate the content in terms of previously received information

        d) be able to search through text to decide whether the whole or part is relevant to a specified need

        e) be able to deduce the meaning of an unknown word from context

        f）be able to search through text to establish which part is relevant to a specified need

Writing: a) be able to use correctly those conventions peculiar to the written language

       b) be able to write the correct sentences according to the rules of grammar

       c) be able to think creatively

       d) be able to organize logically

Spoken language test: a) be able to express greetings

                  b) be able to narrate or describe the events

                  c) be able to clarify and check on specific meaning  

Test Takers:

students who is going to be members of college.

Test Content:

Listening: Type: conversation, passage

         Topic: tour booking, American election

Grammar & vocabulary: Type: sentences

Cloze: Type: passage

      Topic: part-time job

Reading: Type: passage

        Topic: George Andrews’s life

Writing: Type: short passage

       Topic: The Popularity of Getting Certificates on Campus

Spoken language test: Type: speech

Topic: ten different topics

 

Test Length:

There will be six parts.

Test Method:

Discrete-point text and integrative text are used in combination with emphasis on the latter.

Test Task and Item Type:

Component	Type	Expected Response	Mode
Listening	multiple-choice questions	selected	written
Grammar& vocabulary	multiple-choice questions	selected	written
Cloze	multiple-choice questions	selected	written
Reading	multiple-choice questions	selected	written
Writing	constructed	written	written
Spoken language text	constructed	spoken	spoken

 

Test Organization and Weighting:

Component	Number	Weighting  (total score 100)
Listening	25  (2passage)	25%
Grammar & vocabulary	15	10%
Cloze	1	10%
Reading	6    (1passage)	18%
Writing	2	22%
Spoken language text	1	15%

 

Test Duration:

The Written Test should be completed within 60 minutes. The oral test should be completed within 5 minutes.

Scoring Criteria:

For the selected-response type tasks or items, a standard key is showed in the following. They are Listening:1—5：DBBDA 

6.4 7.US 8.40  9.Democratic 10.Republic 11.primary 12.summer 13.winter 14.conventions 15.presidential 16.vice 17.votes 18.campaign 19.November 20.Individuals

Grammar & vocabulary:21—30. CDACA     DBAAC

Cloze:31—40. ACBDC   ABCDD

Reading:41—46. BDCACB

Writing Ranking:47—52. DABCFGE

For the constructed-response type tasks or items, scoring criteria are provided as directions. However, detailed consultation is needed during the marking session to ensure score consistency.

Test Administration:

It is advised that students be informed of the procedures of test administration beforehand. Test instructions should be read to the students before the test begins. Test instructions can be delivered either in English and Chinese as is seen appropriate to the occasion.

Supervisors are expected to administer the test strictly in accordance with the stated procedures.

Measures should be taken to maintain a supportive testing environment throughout the test.

Test Development Chart:

 

 

Component	Skill	Number	Test Focus	Number of Items for Each focus
Listening	see test domain	25	distinguishing ,understanding deductions, listening	3,2,1,4
Grammar & vocabulary	see test domain	10	master ,use, distinguishing	7,4,3
Cloze	see test domain	10	distinguishing, understanding,deduction,comprehension	1,4,7
Reading	see test domain	6	scan ,locate, evaluate, deduce, comprehension, application	1,1,1,1,1,1
Writing	see test domain	2	organization, writing	1,1
Spoken language text	see test domain	1	oral language	1

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

学号：           姓名：           班级：

TEST PAPER

TIME LIMIT:60 MINUTES

 

PARTⅠ  LISTENING COMPREHENSION

In sections A and B you will hear everything ONCE ONLY. Listen carefully and then answer the questions that follow. Mark the correct answer to each question .

SECTION A CONVERSATION

In this section, you will hear one conversation. Listen to the conversation carefully then answer the questions that follow.

Questions 1 to 5 are based on the following conversation. At the end of the conversation, you will be given 20 seconds to answer the questions. Now, listen to the conversation. （2’×5=10’）

1.       What kind of tour is the man interested in?

A. Going to the zoo             B. Visiting museums

C. Going to cities                         D. Climbing mountains

2.  What dose the man think of the nature ?

    A. Boring                     B. Interesting

C. Just so-so                   D. Not mention

3.  What is the lowest price of the over-night trip?

A. $6                     B. $9          

C. $24                   D. $48 

4.  How long ahead does the company require for booking for the tour?

A. 9 hours                    B. One day

C. A day and a half             D. Two days

5.  How will the man book the tour?

    A. Booking that at the hotel tour desk

    B. Calling the company directly

    C. Going to the company to book

  D. Not mention

SECTION B PASSAGE

In this section, you will hear one passage. Listen to the passage carefully then fill in the blanks with a proper word from the passage. （1’×15=15’）

Americans elect a president every __6__ years．The basic requirement to be a president is that he was born in the __7__ and more than __8__ years old. There are many political parties in the United States, but, two political parties are much stronger than the others．They are __9__ and __10__. During the election year there are a lot of local elections, called _11___ elections, held in many of the fifty states．In the election, usually held in the _12___ and __13__, candidates run against members of their own parties．In this way they try to get support of party members around the country．During the summer, both parties have _14___ where the party members make the final choice for the party’s __15__ candidate．Each party chooses a person to run for president and a person to run for __16__ president．The two candidates work as a team．They will win or lose the election together．Once the final candidates are chosen, they __17__ round the country, trying to win __18__．The national election is held in __19__．The candidate who wins becomes president in the following January．The election process is long and costly．Millions of dollars are spent. __20__ prepare to run for presidency for many years．Nearly all of these people fail to win.

 

PART Ⅱ GRAMMAR &VOCABULARY

There are ten sentences in this section. Beneath each sentence there are four words or phrases marked [A],[B],[C] and [D]. Choose one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. （1’×10=10’）

21.  You may be a good singer, but it is ____ unlikely that you will make it big. Looks are important, too.

    A. greatly                              B. largely

    C. highly                              D. fairly

22.  There weren’t many ____ at the games because the tickets were too expensive.

A. competitors                          B. onlookers

C. contestants                          D. spectators

23.  We wanted to go out yesterday, but the weather was terrible. If it ____a nice day, we ____for a picnic.

A. had been；would have gone             B. was；would go

C. were；would have gone                D. would be；would go

24.  For there ____successful communication, all present must be attentive and get involved in the discussion.

A. It is the sun and not the earth           B. That the sun and not the earth

C. Being the sun and not the earth         D. The sun and not the earth

25.  It is recommended that the project ____until all the preparations have been made.

A. not be started                         B. will not be started

C. is not started                          D. is not to be started

26.  Just as the builder is skilled in the handling of his bricks, ____the experienced writer is skilled in the handling of his words.  

A. as                                  B. thus

C. like                                 D. so

27. —Does the baby look like his father？

    —No, actually, I think he ____his mother.

A. takes on                             B. takes after

C. takes up                             D. takes to

28.  Don’t drink the milk；it smells ____sour.

A. as if it was                           B. like it is

C. as if it is                             D. like it was

29. The ability to store knowledge makes computers different from every other machine                       ____interval.

A. ever                                B. thus 

C. get                                 D. as

30. —How often do you eat out？

   —____, but usually about twice a month.

A. No idea                             B. As usual

C. It depends                           D. Generally speaking

PART III CLOZE（1’×10=10’）
Decide which of the choices given below would best complete the passage if inserted in the corresponding blanks. Mark the best choice for each blank on Answer Sheet Two.

   The first and smallest unit that can be discussed in relation to language is the word. In speaking, the choice of words is ____ the utmost importance. Proper selection will eliminate one source of ____ breakdown in communication cycle. Too often, careless use of words ____ a meeting of the minds of the speaker and listener. The words used by the speaker may ____ unfavorable reactions in the listener ____ interfere with his comprehension; \hence, the transmission reception system breaks down ____ ,inaccurate or indefinite words may make  ____ difficult for the listener to understand the ____ which is being transmitted to him. The speaker who does not have specific words in his working vocabulary may be ____ to explain or describe in a ____ that can be understood by his listeners.

31. A) of            B) at             C) for              D) on

32. A) inaccessible    B) timely         C) likely            D) invalid

33. A) encourages     B) prevents       C) destroys          D) offers

34. A) pass out       B) take away      C) back up           D) stir up

35. A) who          B) as            C) which             D) what

36.A) moreover      B) However       C) Preliminarily      D) Unexpectedly

37.A) that           B) it             C) so               D) this

38.A) speech        B) sense          C) message          D) meaning

39.A) obscure       B) difficult        C) impossible        D) unable

40.A) case          B) means         C) method           D) way

PART Ⅳ READING COMPREHENSION

In the section there is one passage followed by questions or unfinished statements, each with four suggested answers marked [A],[B],[C] and [D]. Choose the one that you think is the best answer. （3’×6=18’）

 

George Andrews went to England in 1962. It was the first time that he had been abroad. Initially he was very restless. He spent a little time in London then travelled from town to town, staying just a few days in each.

Eventually, in June that year, he settled in Liverpool. Throughout the three years that he spent there he lived in a small room in a terraced house in Toxtheth. Every morning he would stroll into the centre of the city and make drawings of people in the streets or down at the docks. At lunch time he would go to a pub and have a sandwich, as well as several pints of beer. He would then stagger home and spend the rest of the afternoon sleeping. It was in the evening that he painted the pictures for which he is now famous. In the early hours, around one or two o’clock, he would go to a nearby drinking club, where he would pick up a woman and take her back to his room.

Andrew finally lost interest in painting Liverpool scenes. He set off on a world tour, visiting Europe, India, China and Australia, before returning home to Canada.

41. What is George Andrews according to the text?

  A. Traveler                        B. Painter

  C. Writer                          D. not mention

42. Before he went back to Canada ,where did he go？

  A. India, China, Australia and Africa

  B. India, China, England and Africa

  C. India, Australia, England and America

  D. Europe, India, China and Australia

43. The underlined words “pick up”in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to____.

  A. rescue                          B. comfort

  C. accost.                          D. fetch

 44. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT____ ?

  A. Andrews spent three years in a big room in Toxtheth.

  B. Toxtheth is far away from the centre of Liverpool.

  C. Andrews is famous for his painting.

  D. Andrews has visited many countries in his life.

45.Which of the following is NOT true about Andrews in 1962？

  A. He went abroad for the first time.

  B. He spent most of his time in London.

  C. He settled in Liverpool.

  D. He was interested in painting Liverpool scenes.

46. What’s the main idea of the text?

 A. George Andrews’s life in foreign countries.

 B. George Andrews’s life in Liverpool.

 C. George Andrews’s experience in Liverpool.

 D. George Andrews’s travel

PART V WRITING

SECTION A

In this section you need to arrange the seven sentences logically according to meaning. Please write the order in the brackets. （1’×7=7’）

47.(  ) A. So under this free environment, what’s the most interesting subject among the college

students?

48.(  ) B.Besides love they certainly have many other things to think about. Part-time job is one on the top of the list.

49.(  ) C.Generally speaking college students do part-time for two main reasons: money and accumulating experience.

50.(  ) D.Some people say that the university life is colorful because you can do whatever you want without the constraint of parents.

51.(  ) E.All in all they all feel that part-time jobs offer a platform for the university students to show our talent as well as earn money.

52.(  ) F.Let’s hear what my classmates say about part-time.

53.(  ) G.According to my survey more than two thirds of my classmates had the experience of doing part-time.

 

SECTION B

Directions: For this part, you are allowed 30 minutes to write a short essay entitled Due Attention Should Be Given to the Study of Chinese. You should write at least 150 words following the outline given below. （15’）

1.近年来在学生中出现了忽视中文学习的现象

　 2.出现这种现象的原因和结果

3.为了改变这种状况，我认为……

Due Attention Should Be Given to the Study of Chinese

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

PART VI SPOKEN LANGUAGE TEST

Following there are ten topics, you are expected to choose one to give a 3-minute speech. Three minutes will be given to you for preparation. (15’)

1）  What are the negative effects of advertisements？

2）  If you have a hundred dollars, what would you do with it？

3）  Should people buy things according to what advertisements say？

4）  What kind of music do you prefer, classical or popular music？

5）  What do you think of girls wearing miniskirts？

6）  What do you think of people who dye their hair green？

7）  Which do you prefer, Chinese movies or foreign movies? Why？

8）  Do you think most students make good use of their summer vacation？

9）  Do you honesty is going out of style？Why or why not?

10）Do you prefer to watch movies at home or at the theater？Why？

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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成绩汇总表：

61	66	81	89
88	69	75	55
59	59	66	16
58	66	52	54
61	80	59	53
70	65	55	62
78	63	47
63	65	59
56	53	68
60	57	50

 

（1）分数的集中量：

算数平均数=62

中位数=60.5

众数=59

平均分较低，高分段人数少，分数集中在50至70,本次考试整体难度较大。

频数分布呈正偏态，即算术平均数＞中位数＞众数，平均分以下的分数多于平均分以上的分数。

（2）分数的差异量

全距=73

标准差=12.82

差异系数=36%

此班学生全距，标准差，差异系数均比较大，分数参差不齐，分布分散，分布范围较广，学生间水平不平衡。