1. During
peritoneal dialysis it is especially important to watch the patient
for signs of
A. abdominal
discomfort
B. infection
C. excess
drainage
D. anxiety
2. A
patient is prescribed methyl-dopa 250mg
twice daily. Which of the following observations are the most
important:
A. appetite
and weight changes
B. pulse
and respiration at rest
C. lying
and standing blood pressure
D. colour
and texture of skin
3.
A patient has left sided renal colic, urinalysis is likely to
show:
A. haematuria
B. oliguria
C. albuminuria
D. ketonuria
4. Cardiac
arrest would best be indicated by
A. apnoea
and pinpoint pupils
B. dilated
pupils and absence of carotid pulse
C. unequal
pupils and severe chest pain
D. apnoea
and absence of radial pulse
5. Which
of the following observations would be most useful in aiding a
diagnosis of renal colic
A. type,
frequency and duration of pain
B. colour,
quantity, specific gravity of urine
C. colour,
pulse, blood pressure of patient
D. pulse,
quantity of urine, amount of vomit
6. Following
a partial thyroidectomy the patient develops hypotension. You
should first of all
A. elevate
the foot of the bed
B. note
the redivac drainage
C. report
the hypotension to sister
D. increase
the infusion rate
7. Which
patient on bed rest needs most careful observation for signs of
pressure sores developing on the heels? One suffering
from
A. congestive
cardiac failure
B. rheumatoid
arthritis
C. chronic
bronchitis
D. intermittent
claudication
8. Following
a head injury it is important to observe a patient
for
A. rising
pulse rate, falling blood pressure
B. falling
pulse rate, rising blood pressure
C. rising
pulse rate, rising blood pressure
D. falling
pulse rate, falling blood pressure
9. Overload
of the patient’s circulation during a blood transfusion would be
indicated by
A. distended
neck veins
B. loin
pain
C. pyrexia
D. haematuria
10. A
patient has potassium added to the intravenous infusion. It is
especially important to observe for
A. nausea
and vomiting
B. oedema
and dyspnoea
C. pulse
arrhythmias
D. enhanced
diuresis
11. When
given an intramuscular injection of 2 mls of iron it is important
to
A divide the dose between two
injection sites
B inject it slowly into subcutaneous
tissue
C avoid staining the
skin
D dilute it can equal amount of
water
12. A
patient suffering from a chest infection is prescribed cough
linctus . It would most likely be administered
A. early each
morning
B. three times daily
C. before
physiotherapy
D. late evening
13. A
patient is prescribed 0.5 grams of tetracycline intramuscularly for
one dose only, to be followed by 0.25 grams orally every 6 hours. A
total of 10 grams of tetracycline is to be given, then treatment
discontinued. How many 250 mg tablets will be given during the
course of antibiotic treatment?
A. 24 tablets
B. 38 tablets
C. 52 tablets
D. 66 tablets
14. Anti-inflammatory
drugs used in arthritic conditions include
A. Ismelin
(Guanethidine)
B. Intal
C.
Indocid
D. Inderal
15. Mydriatics
would be used to
A constrict the pupil or the
eye
B dilate
C constrict arteries
D dilate the pupil of the
eye
16.
Patients prescribed mono-amine oxidase inhibitors should
avoid
A. potatoes
B. apples
C. pork
D. cheese
17. Jectofer(iron-sorbital)is
administered
A. subcutaneously
B. intramuscularly
C. orally
D. intravenously
18. A
patient suffering from pernicious anaemia continues to receive a
maintenance dose of cyanocobalamin for
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 5 years
D. life
19. Which
one of the following drugs is an antibiotics
A. chlorpropamide
B. chlorpromazine
C. chloramphenicol
D. chloroquin
20. Another
name for acetosalicylic acid is
A. codeine
B. panadol
C. phenacetin
D. aspirin
21. The“ universal
donor” is
A O
Rh positive
B A
Rh negative
C O
Rh negative
D AB
Rh positive
22. Morphine
Sulphate is prescribed following a coronary thrombosis in order
to
A decrease the respiratory
rate
B relieve the pain and
shock
C decrease the heart
rate
D increase the force of the heart
beat
23. Catheterisation
can cause
A. prostatic
hypertrophy
B. pilonidal cyst
C. urethral
stricture
D. ureteric
stricture
24. Selected
drugs are listed as controlled drugs because they
A are highly
poisonous
B are habit forming
C have dangerous side
effects
D are strong
analgesics
25. The
dose of the drugs prescribed is 1.5 grams. Each of the tablets of
this drug in the bottle contains 375mg. How many tablets should you
give?
A. 2 tablets
B. 3 tablets
C. 4 tablets
D. 6 tablets
26. Gloves
should be worn when giving an intramuscular injection of some
antibiotics because they
A keep your hands
clean
B prevent cross
infection
C help prevent skin
reactions
D prevent the nurse becoming resistant
to the antibiotic
27. Which
one of the following is equivalent to 0.75 of a
gram?
A. 750 milligrams
B. 75 micrograms
C. 750 kilograms
D. 75 milligrams
28. A
common side effect of streptomycin is
A. eczema
B. deafness
C. diarrhea
D. constipation
29. Which
of the following blood groups can receive from all other blood
groups?
A O+
B A-
C AB+
D B-
30. It
is important to administer drugs on time in order
to
A. maintain an effective blood
concentration of the drug
B. avoid interference with other
treatments
C. maintain patients confidence
through a regular routine
D. prevent the patient vomiting if
drugs were administered near meal times
31. Which
insulin has a rapid but relatively short action?
A. protamine zinc
B. lente
C. soluble
D. isophane
32. Acute
renal failure is caused by
A an enlarged
prostate
B hypertensive kidney
disease
C mismatched blood
transfusion
D bilateral calculi
33. A
clear fluid intravenous infusion is running very slowly and behind
schedule, the cannula site is satisfactory. You should
initially
A. withdraw the cannula
slightly
B. remove constricting
bandages
C. change the giving
set
D. raise the bag and open the clamp
(gate)
34. A
complication of long term corticosteroid therapy
is
A. peptic ulcer
B. renal calculi
C. tetany
D. asthma
35. A
patient must not cough whilst having a chest aspiration because
this could cause
A. the cannula to be forcibly
ejected
B. an increase in aspiration
rate
C. air to be drawn in through the
cannula site
D. the lung to be pricked by the
aspiration cannula
36.
Agglutination will occur when
A. Group AB receives group
A
B. Group A receives group
O
C. Group O receives group
B
D. Group B receives group
O
37.A
2 ml syringe contains insulin up to the 18th mark
on the syringe. The insulin is a bottle marked “80
units/ml”.
How many units of insulin are there in the
syringe?
A .18 units
B. 36 units
C. 64 units
D. 72 units
38. Which
one of the following nerves may be damaged when streptomycin is
administered?
A. optic
B. vagus
C. olfactory
D. auditory
39. A
patient is in the physiotherapy department during a round. His
drugs should be
A. checked and left on the
locker
B. checked and left in the
trolley
C. checked and given on his
return
D. taken to the physiotherapy
department
40. The
primary function of digitalis is to
A. aid the excretion of
salt
B. strengthen the heart
beat
C. increase the pulse
rate
D. lower the blood
pressure
41. A
complication of oral frusemide therapy is
A. hypotension
B. calcium depletion
C. retention of
urine
D. potassium
depletion
42. Which
of the following liquid medicines may cause discolouration of the
teeth?
A. magnesium
trisilicate
B. Benylin(relieve
cough and symptoms)
C. ferrous sulphate
D. Aludrox
43. Codeine
linctus acts as a A
A. cough suppressant
B. bronchodilator
C. respiratory
stimulant
D. vasoconstrictor
44.
Once begun, it is considered most important to complete a course of
antibiotic therapy because
A. expensive drugs ought not to be
wasted
B. development of drug resistance is
minimized
C. side effects may be better
tolerated
D. vomiting could lead to
malabsorption
45.
Drugs which have an enteric coat will always
A. be absorbed more quickly than those
without
B. treat enteritis very
effectively
C. be absorbed more slowly than those
without
D. treat hyperemesis very
effectively
46. Purpose
of CVP monitoring?
A. assess hydration and right atrial
pressure
B. assess hydration
C. assess right and left atrial
pressure
D. assess ventricular
pressure
47. Which
of the following physiological changes can occur in prolonged bed
rest?
A. reduced lung expansion
B. reduced urine
output
C. cardiac failure
D. changes in figure
48. Signs
of increased ICP (intra cerebral pressure)
a. tachycardia
b. increased
BP
c. slowed breathing
d. increased
temperature
A. all the above B.
a and b
C. b and c D.
b, c and d
49. Mr.
Tan admitted with complicated fracture. Position for
intubation
A. supine B.
neck extended
C. jaw extended D.
lateral position
50. How
to apply cricoid pressure?
A. upward and forward
B. upward and
backward
C. downward and backward
D. all of the above
51. What
is the advice for patient with chronic back pain is:
A. to do leg exercise up and
down
B. to twist waist
C. proper lifting
technique
D. to apply hot compress for
relief
52. Most
accurate suggestion for Urinary Tract
Infection(UTI)
A. diagnosis needs random urine
examination
B. fever, dysuria, cloudy
urine
C. bacteria more than
1/10000
D. infection of urethra, ureter and
bladder
53. Epinephrine can
be given for resuscitation of patient without IV
line?
A. Intracardiac
B. Endotracheal tube
C. Intrathecal
D. Intra-arterial
54. Treatment
of hyperkalemia
A. Give glucose and
insulin
B. Sodium
Bicarbonate
C. Calcium gluconate
D. Ammonium chloride
55. Caring
for an infant, the parent also include for?
a. to encourage bonding
b. to educate the
mother
c. to reduce workload of
nurse
d. to prepare for
discharge
A. a, b and c B.
a and c
C. a, b, c and d D.
a, b and d
56. Primary
aim of admitting patient to a psychiatric institution?
A. Discharge early
B. Sedate patient
C. Ability to cope with and live
independently
D. Promote institutional
care
57. A
patient with Sengstaken Blackmore tube , complaining of back pain.
What can be indication?
A. perforation of
esophagus
B. displacement of
tube
C. deflation of tube
D. hemorrhage
58. Preventing
aspiration in NG feeding by?
A. check
residual volume
B. give bolus
feeding
C. insert big tube
D. continuous
feeding
59. Ileac
conduit is to:
A. drain urine B.
drain bile
C. drain feces D.
drain blood
60. Best
time for SBE (self breast examination)
A. one week before
menstruation
B. one month before
menstruation
C. one week after
menstruation
1-5 BCABA 6-10 BDBAC
11-15 CDBCD 16-20 DBDCD
21-25 CBCBC 26-30 CABCA
31-35 CCBAD 36-40 CDDCB
41-45 DCABC 46-50 AACBC
51-55 CAAAD 56-60 CAAAC