Buying houses in USA: race and dscrimination?_水影儿

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Buying houses in USA: race and dscrimination?

(2015-03-27 22:56:51)

分类：读书札记

How did the U.S. government make homeownership more accessible in the 1930s?

The government created the FHA (Federal Housing Administration), which provided money to back loans that would go to prospective homeowners. New rules were implemented that allowed people to pay off their houses over 30 years. Previously, people had to pay off home loans within about five years, making it so that only the wealthiest people could own homes.

What is redlining, and how did it racialize homeownership opportunities?

Redlining is the process by which home mortgages are denied to areas or neighborhoods deemed poor financial risks. As a result of the practice, banks issued most loans to people living in predominantly white neighborhoods. Nonwhites were typically denied access to loans, and were often relegated to rental markets in urban areas.

At 6:15 of the video, the Levittown resident says ""I think we had the golden chance after WWII and we flubbed it...that was a golden opportunity and we missed it, we really missed it." What is the "golden chance" to which he is referring?

We had a chance to provide each racial/ethnic group with equal access to homeownership and wealth accumulation. If everyone, regardless of race, would have been given access to home loans, then the racial wealth gap would not have taken shape the way that it did. (Note: A wealth gap still would have existed between rich and poor, but the gap would not have been racialized. In other words, social stratification still would have existed, but there would not have been racial stratification).

How did redlining "construct whiteness"?

As American cities transformed with the development of suburbs, cities became increasing segregated by race. Suburbs, which were predominantly white, came with wealth-accumulating opportunities that were not as present in predominantly nonwhite urban areas. The result is that whites people came to be associated with suburban comfort and opportunity, while nonwhites were often associated with urban blight.

Why didn't the Fair Housing Act correct the problems created by redlining?

Even though laws no longer segregated people, the practice of "white flight" maintained residential segregation.

Why might white families engage in "white flight" when there is an increase of nonwhite families moving into a neighborhood?

In the past, racial prejudice was a likely cause as many whites simply did not want to live in the same neighborhood as nonwhites. But white families need not be prejudiced to engage in white flight? Instead, they may flee for financial reasons. Fearing that minority presence will lead other white families to move, non-prejudiced white families look to sell their houses and move before their homes potentially decline in value.

Why does wite flight negatively affect value of homes for people who live in the area that whites have vacated?

The value of homes is related to demand. Since whites make up nearly 70% of the population, they make up the majority of potential homebuyers. For a house to be valued high, it must be desirable to the white population. When whites do not want to move into a neighborhood, the value of the homes are undermined. This can trigger the downward spiral referenced above.

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